DISCLAIMER: For the purposes of this short article, “the Bible” will be used interchangeably with the New Testament. Although the Torah is fundamental to these texts and should not be excluded from the discussion, I have decided to limit my direct evidence to strictly New Testament scripture in the interest of brevity.

I read the Bible an awful lot, and while a huge proportion of ideological opinions across the globe are directly rooted in scriptural text, I — like countless others for whom these passages remain fundamental to their identity and thought — perpetually find myself searching for explicit theological answers that simply do not exist in writing. There are countless examples of religious beliefs that stem abstractly from biblical interpretation but lack specific reference within the text. Gay marriage, or homosexual activity in particular, cannot be included in this list. Saint Paul writes in his first letter to the Corinthians: “Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men…will inherit the kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 6:9 NIV). Sounds pretty explicit. So how can I, as someone who holds the teachings of Jesus — and his disciples by extension — to the highest esteem of ideological thought, interpret this verse as anything other than anti-gay? Hear me out:

I will preface my argument with the confusing reality that all of the available primary biblical literature has been translated and transcribed for thousands of years and the original passages, and certainly their intentions, remain somewhat unclear. That said, even if we assume perfect depictions of what Paul wrote in the quotation above, as well as the other biblical references to homosexual activity, I do not believe that God and Jesus condemn gay marriage. Take a closer look at that particular verse, this time with the second half that I omitted previously, “…nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers [will inherit the kingdom of God.]” (1 Corinthians 6:9). If interpreters are to categorize the listed behaviors as sinful, they must first identify the underlying wrong, as few if any would argue that the physical manifestations of these actions are intrinsically evil, absent of a sinful intention; a “drunkard” is not in the wrong because he frequently raises a cup of fermented liquid to his mouth, but rather due to the harmful effects that result, for example. So are these activities that Paul describes considered evil? Not necessarily. Most of these examples of sinful behavior according to Paul are encompassed by the broader sin of lust. Lust is difficult to define but can typically be used to describe behaviors that pursue personal pleasure for the wrong reasons, often lacking consideration for the well being of others (as in cheating on a romantic partner or swiping the last Devil-Dog from your sibling’s mini fridge). Wait, so queer relationships are lustful? If you consider the context and environment of these scriptures, it is highly unlikely that Paul was suggesting as such.

Saint Peter’s first epistle includes a strikingly similar warning against a list of unlawful behaviors, “… living in debauchery, lust, drunkenness, orgies, carousing and detestable behavior” (1 Peter 4:4 NIV). Debauchery is defined by Oxford Languages as “excessive indulgence in sensual pleasures,” which parallels my interpretation of the verse I quoted from Paul. There are numerous examples of these warnings throughout the Bible, most of which fall under the categorical umbrella of sexual immorality. “Sexual immorality” is a common English translation of the Greek word ‘porneia,’ as it appears in the original text. I do not purport to be a master of linguistics, but this word across Greek literature can be broadly interpreted as frivolous sexual activity for the purpose of pure self-gratification rather than the gratification of a committed partner. Paul and Peter are highlighting descriptive examples of porneia, also known as lust. Homosexual activity is included not because queerness is a sin, but rather because Paul and Peter could not have conceptualized a loving relationship between two members of the same sex.

A modern perspective could easily attribute this opinion to homophobia, but in Peter and Paul’s day and age, gay marriage was neither supported or opposed, it was simply unprecedented. Would these close followers of God and Jesus have taken offense to two members of the same sex, deeply in love with each other, joining together in marriage? I would like to think not, but the Bible really does not say. Paul and Peter condemn all sexual behavior conducted simply for “fun,” or perhaps more eloquently, sexual behavior outside the realm of a committed relationship where such behavior can carry romantic significance. Just nine verses down the line from the passage I quoted from Paul, he states, “… he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body” (1 Corinthians 6:16). Sexual relations between two people of the same sex for the purposes of fleeting gratification was viewed as “sinful,” just as they were for such relations between a man and a woman. So is all intimacy between two men or two women always just for insignificant gratification? Of course not, but 2,000 years ago, it was viewed as such. Two people of the same sex in a long-term, committed romantic relationship was neither considered positively nor negatively; it was not considered at all. It is worth noting that Jesus himself, whom I believe truly had…

It is worth noting that Jesus himself, whom I believe truly had the answers to all of these questions and beyond, is not quoted in the Bible with any reference to homosexual activity. Paul and Peter were mere human beings left to interpret Jesus’ teachings as best they could. Many historians maintain that the authors of the texts quoted above did not even know Jesus personally. If these authors were alive today, where it is abundantly clear that two members of the same sex can fall deeply in love, I find it difficult to imagine that Paul and Peter would have interpreted Jesus’ teachings the same way. Is it homophobic to assume all homosexual behavior is devoid of love? Absolutely it is, unless you lived in a time in which there was no conception of the possibility of a queer romantic relationship. Paul and Peter were not omnipotent or all-knowing, and although they were deeply entrenched in Jesus’ words, they were at least partially a product of their society.

If Jesus himself were to speak on the matter, I believe it would sound very different than what we are accustomed to hearing from the stereotypical Judeo-Christian perspective. We do not have record of Jesus offering his two cents on gay marriage, but boy does he emphasize the importance of love: “Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength’. The second is this: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’ There is no commandment greater than these.” (Mark 12:30/31 NIV). I would need a whole book to describe every example. Here is my point: the Bible uses homosexual activity as one small example of “lustful behavior”, which of course it can be, in just the same way that heterosexual activity can. The authors of the Bible likely did not consider a scenario in which members of the same sex would share romantic feelings for one another, and thus assumed that all homosexual activity was frivolous and counter-productive. So would a national government headed by God and Jesus oppose gay marriage? I would be very surprised. After all, even Paul himself goes on to declare, “And now these three remain: faith, hope, and love. But the greatest of these is love.” (1 Corinthians 13:13 NIV).